References
↑1 | See Malachi 2:14-16. God spoke to Israel about its sinful behavior using the symbolism of marriage. God declared to Israel: you have dealt treacherously (“בָּגַדְתָּה”) with the “wife of your youth,” even though she is “your companion” (חֲבֶרְתְּךָ) and your wife by covenant (“וְאֵשֶׁת בְּרִיתֶךָ”) God used the marriage covenant, created by God in Genesis, to demonstrate that Israel had dealt treacherously, as an adulterer deals with the wife of his youth. In response, God disregarded the sacrifices of His people Israel. Though they would weep, groan and morn, they still dealt treacherously and God disregarded their offerings. This passage emphasizes the spiritual nature of marriage, and how it illustrates the spiritual relationship between Israel and God. |
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↑2 | This Greek word for testing (“πειράζοντες“–present active participle, masculine nominative plural, indicates they came for the purpose of testing him) means that opponents of Jesus sought to trap Him by His words. They presented a question to Jesus, for the sole purpose of seeking a basis to accuse Him of error under the Law of Moses, which they studied often. This same word, in the same form, also occurs in other passages. In Matthew 16:1, page 1529, for example, the Pharisees and Sadducees sought a sign from heaven, testing Jesus. Likewise, in Mark 8:11, page 1572, the Pharisees came and argued with Jesus, again seeking a sign from heaven. In a similar passage about divorce, Mark 10:1, page 1577, the Pharisees questioned Jesus about divorce, testing him again. See also Luke 11:16, page 1621, where some people in a crowd sought a sign from heaven because Jesus cast out a demon and so they were testing him. |
↑3 | In Hebrew, God emphasized that He created man (“אֶת-הָאָדָם”), using the generic term for human, and then specified that both male and female humans God made in His image (בְַּלְמוֹ). |
↑4 | The Greek phrase here for “to be joined” (“κολληθήσεται“–notice the passive voice, indicating that God joins husband and wife, and not man–compare also the Hebrew term for joined (“דָבַק”) referring again to God joining the male and female) indicates that God has a divine plan for a male and female to join together in a permanent bond forged by God. |
↑5 | The Hebrew phrase here for “become one flesh” (“וְהָיוּ לְבָשָׂר אֶחָד and the Greek phrase “and the two will become one flesh” (“καὶ ἔσονται οἱ δύο εἰς σάρκα μίαν”) both speak of the joining of male and female in marriage to become one flesh. God joins two people to make one new flesh. |
↑6 | In 1 Corinthians 6:15, page 1788, the Holy Spirit wrote: “Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ? Shall I then take away the members of Christ and make them members of a prostitute? May it never be!” In this verse, Jesus taught us that our physical bodies have spiritual qualities called “members.” So, as a believer, I am a member of the Body of Christ. Just like I am joined to Christ by faith, I can become a member of a prostitute if I have sex with a prostitute. I should always remember that by faith I am a member of the Body of Christ, and belong solely to Christ. Notice that God wants us to know about the spiritual aspects of sex and how we become members of sinful people when we have sex with them. As a believer, I must remain conscious that the very presence of our holy God lives within me, all day, every day, to the glory of God. |
↑7 | In 1 Corinthians 6:16, page 1788, Paul warned: “Or do you not know that the one who joins himself to a prostitute is one body with her? For He says, “THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH.” Clearly then Paul does not refer to the offspring as one flesh produced by the sexual union, but rather something spiritual happens to the believer when he has sex with a prostitute. God created a special relationship for sex. He named that special relationship marriage. When you ignore God’s plan that sexual activity joins two people as one flesh, then you endanger your spiritual walk with God. In 1 Corinthians 6:17, page 1788, Paul described the spiritual joy of having a spiritual union with Christ Jesus, not in a sexual sense, but in the sense of being spiritually joined with Him. |
↑8 | The Greek term for “joined together” (“συνέζευξεν“–aorist, active, indicative) only occurs here and in the parallel passage in Mark 10:9, page 1577, on marriage and divorce. Notice in the Mark 10:9, page 1577, passage, Jesus answered the first question found in Matthew 19:3, page 1534. Jesus did not focus upon the second question in Matthew 19:7, page 1534, concerning the Mosaic Law and divorce. Jesus, however, pre-empted that question by His response to the first question in Mark 10:5, page 1577: “Because of your hardness of heart he [Moses] wrote you this commandment.” Notice that Jesus always taught that the serious sin of hardness of heart always underlies divorce for any reason. Often, the believer continues to bear a grudge against an unfaithful spouse, that results in bitterness and smoldering anger. When that smoke and bitterness accumulate, without confession and spiritual forgiveness, the desire for divorce arises from the hard heart. So you see that Jesus linked that problem of unforegiveness and divorce to the spiritual hardness of heart. According to Jesus, no one seeks a divorce unless they have a hard heart. Not every hard heart arises from infidelity. In some cases, the spouse simply may have lost interest in the marriage, found someone else, or longed for money another spouse would provide. Many reasons may account for the hardness of heart. But all of those reasons display the same attitude toward the marriage bond God used to join the man and the woman. The hardness of heart finds its specific target in disdaining the work of God in creating and sustaining the marriage. In some cases, the infidelity of the first spouse produces a more profound and long-lasting sin of bitterness and hardness of heart in the other spouse, who was wronged by infidelity. Sexual sin has profound effects in the marriage, and may lead to such unforegiveness in the spouse that he/she files for divorce. Yet, by filing for divorce, that spouse yields to sin flowing from a hard heart. Consider Matthew 6:14-15, page 1509: “For it you forgive others, then your heavenly Father will also forgive you. But if you do not forgive others, then your Father will not forgive your transgressions.” Furthermore, remember Matthew 18:21-22, page 1533: “Then Peter came and said to Him, ‘Lord, how often shall my brother sin against me and I forgive him? up to seven times?’ Jesus said to him, ‘I do not say to you, up to seven times, but up to seventy time seven.”” |
↑9 | Of course, we know that in heaven, we shall be like the angels, who are neither married nor given in marriage. See Luke 21:34-36. |
↑10 | The Greek term for “joined” (“συνέζευξεν”) appears in the aorist tense. The aorist tense highlights the totality, finality, and completeness of the term “joined.” The subject of the verb is “God.” The verb also stands in the active voice, meaning that God, not a human, joined the the male and female in marriage. Finally, we should also observe the indicative mood. The indicative mood speaks of actual reality. So, Jesus taught that God, not man, completely and finally joined a male and female together, and they absolutely exist henceforth as one flesh. |
↑11 | In the Greek text, Jesus phrased it so that you could translate it: “man shall not separate.” The technical details here matter. Just as God joined, so a “man” (“ἄνθρωπος “) (notice the singular) shall not separate. This negative term “no” (“μὴ“) indicated that under no circumstances (with the subjunctive verb) should the man separate what God joined together. Jesus could have used the other word for no (“οὐκ“) normally used with the indicative mood, but instead he used the normal “no” used with the subjunctive mood. In this context, however, Jesus apparently taught that “no” here means under no circumstances, no possibility of man separating. Jesus also emphasized the action of separation (“χωριζέτω“). This verb indicates moving apart, separating, divorcing. This same root word occurs in 1 Corinthians 7:15, page 1788: “Yet, if the unbelieving one leaves (“χωρίζεται“), let him leave (“χωριζέσθω:“); the brother or the sister is not under bondage in such cases, but God has called us to peace.” This same root word helps us understand both passages, because both passages speak about divorce as “separating” or “leaving.” The New American Standard translators did not use the same English words, but the Greek text helps you understand the close relationship between the act of “man separates,” just as the “unbeliever leaves,” but actually separates from the spouse in the sense of “divorce” in Matthew 19:6, page 1534. |
↑12 | The Hebrew term for “indecency” (“עֶרְוַת דָּבָר”) literally means a repulsive thing, referring normally to her nakedness (consider the story of Ham looking upon the nakedness of his father in Genesis 9:22, page 13; see also Leviticus 18:1-17, page 191-192 for the general prohibitions about uncovering the nakedness of certain individuals, speaking of indecent sexual activity). We may glean from the other uses of the term that the “indecency” includes improper sexual relations outside the marriage. |
↑13 | The Greek word for “then” (“οὖν”) functions to link this question to the previous answer of Jesus. In this passage, you cannot understand the teaching of Jesus, except you first understand the questions posed by the Pharisees. The Pharisees ground a particular axe here about divorce. Jesus used the questions from the Pharisees to elucidate His commands regarding divorce and remarriage. |
↑14 | The Greek word for “command” (“ἐνετείλατο”) chosen by the Pharisees missed the context of Deuteronomy 23:1-4. In that passage, Moses did issue a command, but it concerned “indecency,” and also the remarriage of the divorced woman. The first husband was prohibited from remarrying the woman he once divorced, if she had married another man after the divorce. Jesus will explain the background to this passage in Deuteronomy in the next verse. |
↑15 | The Greek term for “permitted (“ἐπέτρεψεν”) means to allow, permit, let. Think concession to sinfulness with this word. |
↑16 | By the phrase “filing for divorce,” I want to emphasize the act of initiating the divorce, but also included in the phrase is the divorce in its totality, specifically including the final judgment of dissolution of marriage. In other words, the phrase includes the complete “divorce” as a civil action in court, as the United States of America legal systems recognize the civil law process. |
↑17 | Every group of elders in a local assembly should carefully consider imposing church discipline upon every believer who files for divorce. Hardness of heart threatens to destroy the marriage and imperil the welfare of the children of the marriage. The principles of Galatians 6:1-5, page 1826 and Matthew 8:15-20, page 1533, should be applied to help the believer refrain from seeking or completing the divorce. Furthermore, the elders should minister to the suffering couple the Word of God regarding repentance (2 Corinthians 7:5-13, page 1811) and forgiveness (Luke 17:1-4, page 1634 and Luke 15:11-32, page 1635). |
↑18 | The Greek phrase “hardness of heart” (“σκληροκαρδίαν”) emphasized the particular “hardness of heart” at issue in divorce with the definite article. The root word for “hardness” illustrates the sinful stubbornness of the unrepentant heart (Romans 2:5, page 1760). In a similar sense, the “stiff-necked” (“Σκληροτράχηλοι”) and uncircumcised of heart are always resisting the Holy Spirit and follow the sinful patterns of their fathers (Acts 7:51, Page 1713). |
↑19 | The Greek root term for “adultery” occurs in many contexts. For example, Romans 7:3, page 1767, shows that a woman who “is joined” (“γένηται”) to another man after the death of her husband does not become an “adulteress” (“μοιχαλίδα”); likewise, see Matthew 12:39, page 1521; Matthew 16:34, page 1529; (sign of Jonah the Prophet). In 2 Peter 2:14, page 1902, Peter described false prophets as “having eyes full of adultery (“μοιχαλίδος”) that never cease from sin.” In that context, both spiritual and sexual sin seems in view. Notice too that Jesus taught she was free from the law of divorce in that verse. In James 4:4, page 1891, we learn that friendship with the world makes us “adulteresses” (“μοιχαλίδες”). Similarly, in Mark 8:32, page 1574, Jesus spoke of everyone who is ashamed of Him and His words are part of an adulterous (“μοιχαλίδι“) and sinful generation. |
↑20 | The Greek term here for “makes” (“ποιεῖ“–present active indicative) indicates the husband is responsible for her adultery. The Greek syntax here (” ποιεῖ αὐτὴν μοιχευθῆναι“) has the present active indicative followed by the aorist passive infinitive (“μοιχευθῆναι”), apparently implying the result of the divorce throws the Innocent Spouse into the pool abounding with “adultery.” In essence, the Innocent Spouse has adultery put upon her (aorist passive voice–implying completed, total action in this case–passive voice probably indicates she had this problem foisted upon her), because her husband filed for divorce. As seen in 1 Corinthians 7, when some of the unmarried burn with passion, immorality becomes a problem, and it is better for them to marry. |
↑21 | The Greek term here for adultery (“μοιχᾶται”–present middle indicative–shows that adultery can be self-inflicted, middle voice, and so it further bolsters the argument that the preceding participle ἀπολελυμένην may best be translated as middle voice (instead of passive voice), indicating the wife filed for divorce in this last clause. Also, this same term “committing adultery” (“μοιχᾶται”) occurs in Matthew 19:9, page 1534, Mark 10:11-12, page 1577, and in each case it references the spouse who files for divorce commits adultery by marrying another person. In Matthew 15:19, page 1528, Jesus placed the source of adulteries in the heart, from which come evil thoughts; compare Mark 7:22, page 1570, Greek Text. Likewise, in Luke 16:18, page 1633, Jesus declared that everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery (“μοιχεύει”–present act indicative) and he who marries one who is divorced from a husband commits adultery (“μοιχεύει”). In this usage, the “divorced” person appears to be still married to the original spouse, because she/he can commit adultery with others, even after the “divorce.” In Romans 2:22, page 1761, the term for adultery (“μοιχεύειν”) occurs in the construction “ὁ λέγων μὴ μοιχεύειν μοιχεύεις;” This construction shows the use of the infinitive coupled with μὴ to describe a forbidden sexual act. Likewise, in James 2:22, page 1761, the command not to commit adultery (“Μὴ μοιχεύσῃς“–aorist active subjunctive–all -encompassing command to abstain from adultery), relates directly to the charge that you do commit adultery (“μοιχεύεις”); a very similar construction “Μὴ μοιχεύσῃς” occurs regarding the rich young ruler in Mark 10:19, page 1578, and Luke 18:20, pages 1636-1637. Compare the similar command in Matthew 5:27, page 1507, “You shall not commit adultery” (“Οὐ μοιχεύσεις“–same construction in Matthew 19:18, page 1535; Romans 13:9, page 1776.) In John 8:4, page 1670, accusers bring a woman caught in the very act of adultery (“μοιχευομένη”–present passive participle. The passive voice here indicates that she was a part of the sin, but the other actor remains undetermined). In Revelation 2:22, page 1916, we read the Lord will throw Jezebel upon a bed of sickness, and those who commit adultery (“τοὺς μοιχεύοντας“–present active participle, notice the masculine indicating the male actors) with her, into great tribulation. In Luke 8:11, page 1636, the Pharisee praised God he was not like adulterers (“μοιχοί”); similarly, the same Greek term “μοιχοί” is used in 1 Corinthians 6:9, page 1788, to describe different people who would not inherit the kingdom of God. Thanks be to Jesus Christ that “such were some of you,” but now those “adulterers” have been washed and sanctified and justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God. This verse provides strong support for permissible remarriage after divorce that occurred before salvation. 1 Corinthians 6:11, page 1788, believers who committed adultery before salvation are no longer “adulterers,” because of the phrase “such were some of you” (“καὶ ταῦτά τινες ἦτε“–imperfect active indicative, showing a continuous past state of adultery, now changed by the wonderful activity of Jesus and the Holy Spirit in their lives). Therefore, if you divorced or remarried improperly before salvation, you are no longer an “adulterer” because salvation has changed you. Finally, in Hebrews 13:4, page 1886, the judgement of God awaits all people who commit sexual immorality (“πόρνους” ) and adulterers (“μοιχοὺς“)–notice the simple nouns to describe these people, as opposed to the participles in the other passages. |
↑22 | The Greek term for “immorality” (“πορνείᾳ”) covers several sexual sins. For example, the same word occurs in 1 Corinthians 5:1, pages 1786-1787, to describe the fact that a man has his father’s wife. The word also describes the acts of a harlot in Revelation 19:2, page 1936. The word also appears in conjunction with “impurity (“τῇ ἀκαθαρσίᾳ”) and “sensuality” (“ἀσελγείᾳ”) in 2 Corinthians 12:21, page 1818. |
↑23 | The Greek term for “adultery” (“μοιχᾶται”) means to be unfaithful sexually in a marriage context, but it also describes the spiritual sin of breaking a marriage covenant with God by seeking idols (see Jeremiah 5:7, page 1196, where God says that the sons of Israel have forsaken God and committed adultery as they “trooped” to the harlot’s house by swearing by those who are not gods. See also Ezekiel 23:37, page 1335, and Hosea 4:13, page 1416). |
↑24 | Some commentators have argued that the story of Joseph and Mary must mean that the word “immorality” (“πορνείᾳ”) must be limited in meaning to sexual activity before marriage, in the sense of fornication. In essence, they argue that Matthew called Joseph a “righteous” man, even as Joseph contemplated “divorcing” (“ἀπολῦσαι“) Mary before they were formally married. Matthew used the same word for “divorced” in Matthew 1:19, page 1502, and Matthew 19:9, page 1534. So, to avoid any inconsistency between the acts of Joseph, a righteous man, and the teachings of Jesus later in Matthew and the other Gospels, these commentators argue that “immoraltiy” should be limited to just “fornication” before marriage. One significant problem is that their argument lacks clear textual support. The word “immorality” never occurs with Mary and Joseph, and they only prove that Joseph was justified in putting Mary away before marriage. They intend to limit the meaning of the term “immorality” in Matthew 19:9, page 1534, to just premarital sexual activity. In their view, the only marriages subject to divorce without sin would be those people only engaged, but not formally married. But, that meaning does not fit with the context of formally married people seeking divorce, which we see in Matthew 19. Otherwise, to adopt the limited view of “immorality,” all the divorces Jesus has in mind in Matthew 19 were those “divorces” before the couples were actually married, or sexual acts committed before marriage. In the alternative, following the logic of this view, Jesus meant that you could divorce any time during the marriage if you could show that your spouse had been guilty of pre-marital infidelity. But then the example of Joseph would not apply, because Joseph sought to put Mary away before they were married. Such limitations do not fit with the question of the Pharisees who had in mind that any man could divorce his wife for any reason whatsoever. The proof for limiting the term “immorality” in Matthew 19:9, page 1534, to mean only “fornication” (referring to premarital acts) does not appear convincing, but very interesting. |
↑25 | In 1 Corinthians 6:18, page 1788, the term “immoral man” (“πορνεύων”–present active participle, indicating, perhaps, continuous present action) suggests a close connection to bodily acts of a sexual nature. |
↑26 | Hebrews 12:9-11, pages 1884-1885–all discipline seems sorrowful for the moment. Godly sorrow in turn leads to repentance. 2 Corinthians 7:9-11, page 1811. |
↑27 | Although I do no agree with some of the authors conclusions about divorce and remarriage, he does present a summary of different views and analyzes them. See https://bible.org/article/teachings-jesus-divorce-%E2%80%94-matthew-531-32a. |
↑28 | We should also consider the problem of “immorality” that occurred a long time ago in a marriage. What is a long time? In answering that question, we must consider the teaching of Jesus in Deuteronomy 24:1-4, page 325. Jesus used the word “defiled” (“הֻטַּמָּאָה”) there to describe the woman who had been divorced, married by a new husband, and then the new husband died; in that case, the wife cannot remarry the first husband because she is “defiled,” in the sense of taking her would be an abomination (“כִּי-תוֹעֵבָה”). We may learn here that sex with another man renders a woman unclean in reference to having sex with her previous husband. Taking her back would be an abomination if she had remarried, even if her new husband had died. I am not suggesting that we follow this pattern of Old Testament law, but I observe that sex with another person, even in marriage after divorce, causes ceremonial uncleanness in the Old Testament. The more basic point is that taking a person back has serious sexual and spiritual consequences. By taking back, I mean having sex with that person again. Remember that having sex with a prostitute causes you to be joined with her. So, joining these two concepts together (no remarriage and sex with a prostitute), I suggest that if a spouse takes an immoral spouse back and has sex with that spouse, or even continues the marriage after the immorality, then the exception of “immorality” in the teaching of Jesus in the Matthew 19:8, page 1534 no longer applies. If you learn of the immorality, and have a hard-heart and say, no I am going to divorce you, then you commit Hard-Hearted Divorce by filing for divorce. You may avoid Adultery Sin because your spouse was immoral. But if you take the spouse back, continue the marriage or have sex with that spouse again, then you have become one flesh with that spouse again and so the exception of “immorality” no longer applies. I do not teach this with great assurance, but it makes the most sense to me in light of the entire group of passages on divorce and remarriage. So, how long is a long time? The answer is fairly simple: did you have sex after you knew about the immorality, or did you continue the marriage? So, any sin of immorality does not linger in the marriage, except by unforgiveness and a hard heart. |
↑29 | In the Greek text, the phrase “whoever” (“καὶ ὃς ἐὰν“) only occurs here and in Matthew 12:39, page 1521, and Matthew 18:5, and seems always part of conditional clause with a subjunctive verb. Not only does this phrase indicate the phrase may stand independently of the first part of the verse, it also suggests something that is likely to happen in the future. Furthermore, this entire last phrase apparently stands independently from the woman in the first part of the verse. No definite article describes the “divorced woman” and so the relationship to the woman divorced in the first part of the verse cannot be pressed to mean the same woman. |
↑30 | In the Greek text, the term for “divorced” (“ἀπολελυμένην“) may be in the middle voice or the passive voice. It may also be a deponent. But, taking the entire context into consideration, and the larger teaching already developed in Matthew 19:1-9, page 1534, it seems best to take it as middle voice, with the sense that the wife took the action to divorce herself. |
↑31 | Paul used the term “immorality” (“πορνείας”), and that is the same root word used in Matthew 19:9, page 1534. Because of the problem with “immorality,” God provides for a man to have a wife. |
↑32 | In 1 Corinthians 7:5-7, page 1789, Paul described the gift that allowed him to avoid immorality, but he made it plain that not everyone possessed that special gift of “self-control” (“ἀκρασίαν”). Notice too that Satan uses this lack of self-control to tempt believers, especially in the marriage of believers. So, following Paul’s teaching, we see that even in marriage, the lack of “self-control” may be a problem when one spouse deprives the other spouse of sex. As Paul taught, only believers married to each other should have sex, and in that context of a believer’s marriage, “self-control” can still be an issue. Satan tempts married believers when they are deprived of sex. So the remedy will always be mutuality in sexuality. As Paul described in 1 Corinthians 7:4, pages 1788-1789, each spouse controls the sexual activity of the other spouse. In other words, if you perceive that your spouse hungers for sex, then have sex. If you deprive the other spouse of sex, then do it only by agreement and then only for a time (“καιρὸν”) to devote yourselves to prayer (1 Corinthians 7:5, page 1789). So, any spouse who uses sex as a weapon or power play in a marriage clearly violates the Word of God. |
↑33 | In 1 Corinthians 7:9, page 1789, the Greek phrase “burn with passion” (“πυροῦσθαι“–present passive infinitive) literally just references the burning. Because of the context, the translators added the word “passion.” Based upon 1 Corinthians 7:5, page 1789, we see that Satan seeks to use this lack of “self-control” in believers to inflame their passions for sex to promote immorality in the lives of believers. |
↑34 | The Greek terms here are “the unmarried” (“>ἀγάμοις”) and “the widows” (ταῖς χήραις”). In Romans 7:1-3, pages 1766-1767, Paul explained that the law caused a woman to be bound in marriage to her husband as long as he lived. But, upon his death, the wife was now a widow, and no longer bound to her husband. In 1 Timothy 5:1-16, page 1857-1588, Paul outlined the principles for caring for widows. In 1 Timothy 5:14, Paul specifically commanded younger widows “to get married, bear children, keep house, and give the enemy no cause for reproach, for some have already turned aside to follow Satan.” Paul understood the “sensual desires (“καταστρηνιάσωσιν”) in disregard of Christ many widows experienced. The cure for such desires was marriage, just as he prescribed for the “unmarried.” |
↑35 | 1 Corinthians 7:9, page 1789. |
↑36 | The Greek phrase here is “should not leave” (“μὴ χωρισθῆναι“). The same term “leave” occurs in 1 Corinthians 7:11, page 1789, to describe the woman who leaves (“χωρισθῇ”) her husband. |
↑37 | The Greek term for “unmarried” (“ἄγαμος”) therefore includes divorced people, based upon 1 Corinthians 7:10-11, page 1789. |
↑38 | The Greek term for “does leave” (“χωρισθῇ”) here must mean divorce, because of Paul’s words in the same verse “the husband should not divorce (“ἀφιέναι”) his wife.” The behavior of the wife in leaving seems the same as the behavior of the husband in divorcing, both in the same verse. You may recall that Jesus used the term “divorce” (“ἀπολύσῃ”) in Matthew 19:9, page 1634. We see a variety of words used in these passages to describe divorce, but while a closer study of those terms would be nice, it is beyond the scope of this study. |
↑39 | This distinction between what Paul wrote here and what the Lord Jesus said has been twisted by many commentators. In this instance, when Paul attributed the teaching concerning divorce to the Lord Jesus, he only meant that the Lord Jesus had explicitly taught on divorce. In other instances, Paul relied upon the Holy Spirit working within him to provide the words Paul wrote. In all cases, Paul wrote under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit (2 Timothy 3:16-17, page 1864, and 2 Peter 1:20-21, page 1901). When I write that Paul taught, I mean that Paul taught under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, so Paul was speaking for God in all his epistles contained in the Bible. They were inspired the moment that his pen hit the paper, if not in his mind before the pen moved. Paul also used the phrase “I think I have the Spirit of the Lord.” (1 Corinthians 7:39, pages 1790-1791). |
↑40 | 2 Corinthians 6:14-18, page 1810 provides clear reasons why a believer should never marry an unbeliever: (a) no partnership with unbelievers (v. 14); (b) no fellowship with unbelievers (v. 14); (c) no harmony with unbelievers (v. 15); (d) nothing in common with unbelievers (v.15); (e) no agreement with unbelievers (v.15). |
↑41 | The Greek term for “divorce” (“ἀφιέτω”) is the same root term Paul used for “divorce” in the previous verse. |
↑42 | The Greek term for “consents” (“συνευδοκεῖ”) literally means same good thoughts, or agrees. |
↑43 | This passage stands in contrast to 2 Corinthians 6:14-18, page 1810, where Paul urges a believer to remain separate from an unbeliever, and to “COME OUT FROM THEIR MIDST AND BE SEPARATE.” There, Paul commanded believers to avoid all bonds with unbelievers, especially to avoid being romantically involved with them. |
↑44 | Do not misunderstand. God prohibits marriage between two males and likewise between two females. God always intended for one male to marry one female. |
↑45 | The Greek word for “sanctifying” (“ἡγίασται”–note the perfect passive indicative) means here that the believing wife has a continuing influence upon the unbeliever. Many wives, by their continual, faithful testimony, have seen their unfaithful husbands come to know the saving power of faith in Jesus Christ and His death and resurrection (1 Peter 3:1-6, page 1896). Paul nowhere taught that salvation can be imputed from one spouse to another, or from parent to child. Each person must receive the gift of eternal life by faith alone. |
↑46 | Some commentators wrongly suppose that the children are automatically saved by the influence of the believing spouse. Some commentators even teach that the believing parent can remove or limit the effects of original sin their children, but nothing in any of these verses speak of original sin. Scripture never contradicts itself, because God wrote Scripture, and God cannot contradict Himself, because He always tells the truth (John 17:17, page 1690; Titus 1:2, page 1865). Scripture universally provides that salvation comes by faith alone, and it must be your own faith (Romans 10:9-10, page 1772), and not the faith of others. So, in this verse, we have the sanctifying influence of the believing parent shining God’s light of salvation upon the children, and also training them daily in the ways of the Lord Jesus Christ. |
↑47 | The Greek term here for “leaves” (“χωρίζεται”) means to depart, but in this context, we see that it also means to divorce (1 Corinthians 7:10). |
↑48 | The Greek term for “bondage” (“δεδούλωται “) here means to live under the marriage bond. The same word is used in the same form only in 2 Peter 2:19, page 1902, where it speaks of the slavery of corruption suffered by false prophets. A better comparison of the use of the same concept of “bondage” occurs in 1 Corinthian 7:39, page 1790, where Paul wrote that a woman is “bound” (“δέδεται“) to her husband as long as he lives. But once he dies, then she is “free” (“ἐλευθέρα”) to remarry. Compare Romans 7:2, page 1766, where Paul spoke of the woman as “”bound” (“δέδεται”) by the law to her husband so long as her husband lives. But when the husband dies, the the wife is “released” from the law. In a parallel sense, the term for “released” (“κατήργηται“) means to abolish, to destroy, or to replace one thing with another, such as light removes darkness. Just as the woman is no longer bound to her husband after death, so also salvation releases us from the bondage of sin. Compare the use of a similar term for “bondage” (“δεδουλωμένοι“) in Galatians 4:3, page 1823, where it indicates that people were held in bondage under the elemental things of the world, but freed when Christ appeared bringing salvation and adoption into the family of God, now crying “Abba! Father! In this same sense, something that once held one in bondage now has been removed. |